ALE Doctrine Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which form of reconnaissance is usually the most time intensive?
• What are the two recon techniques?
• Operations at any echelon that enable the decisive operation or shaping operations by generating and maintaining combat power are called what?
• When do you conduct a Movement to Contact?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of assigned area used by a land component or ARFOR commander?
• BRASSCRAFO includes a consideration related to lighting conditions. Which option represents this factor?
• The Aviation Handbook naming convention uses which term as a violent action verb for a control measure area?
• Which statements describe the sub-components of CCIR?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a task of an AHB?
• What length of time is a long duration tempo?
• MEDEVAC differs from CASEVAC in that MEDEVAC uses what type of transports and staffing?
• Which of the following is a domain in the five-domain operational framework?
• What are the actions Army forces must take in order to defeat peer enemy forces and succeed in the multidomain operational environment?
• Which statement best characterizes MEDEVAC?
• Which type of air movement expedites movement and minimizes threat of enemy activity?
• Which type of reconnaissance uses two or more different assets and collects against the same intelligence requirement?
• Which term is used for information about the threat or operational environment?
• Which form of security provides early warning to the protected force but offers the least protection and lacks combat power?
• Which step follows Initiate Movement in the planning steps?
• Step 4 of the Engagement Area Development Process is to:
• An item of information which reflects the intention or capability of an adversary to adopt or reject a specific course of action is called an:
• What term describes the unit that directly accomplishes the mission?
• What does CCIR stand for?
• Which statement best describes Essential Elements of Friendly Information (EEFI)?
• What is the only type of security that a battalion can perform?
• How many AGM-114 Hellfire missiles can the MQ-1C Gray Eagle carry?
• Which form of reconnaissance is conducted as a special operation in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance?
• Which control measure is specifically designated to control air operations?
• Intertheater patient movement involves moving patients between theaters.
• What is the purpose of the Aircrew Operations Order?
• Which form of security protects routes, installations, and actions within a defined area?
• What are the two measures of local security?
• Which term describes a designated subordinate unit that supports the success of the main effort?
• How many Army Aviation airframes can conduct or assist in an Air Assault?
• In BRASSCRAFO, which is a consideration related to rotor wash?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamentals of security?
• Which domain is part of the five-domain operational framework that addresses celestial or orbital aspects?
• Which term describes the approval authority for launching MEDEVAC missions in aviation operations?
• Which is a reason we conduct Offensive Operations?
• PIRs are associated with what?
• What does PIR stand for?
• FFIRs are requests for updates on which aspect?
• Which of the following may be included as members of the Designation Board?
• What does EA stand for in a military planning context?
• Which of the following is NOT a movement technique?
• Which factors are considered when selecting a Helicopter Landing Zone?
• Which form of contact relates to electromagnetic signals such as radar or communications?
• Which type of reconnaissance uses one or more types of reconnaissance or surveillance systems and directs follow-on collecting of more detailed information by another system?
• What is the term for casualty movement aboard nonmedical vehicles or aircraft without en route medical care?
• Which airframes can be utilized during an Air Assault?
• PIH represents the three dimensions of the operational framework. Which is the correct set?
• Intratheater patient movement refers to moving patients within what area?
• Which statement is NOT an element of Commander's Guidance?
• Which entity is responsible for coordinating and managing the Air Mission Coordination Meeting and the Air Mission Brief?
• Which item is not part of the Five Steps of Reverse Planning (GLALS)?
• Which UAS discussed can carry armament?
• Utilize _______ when the commander is uncertain of the composition and disposition of enemy forces in their areas of operation.
• What are the 5 control measures?
• Operations that set conditions for the success of the decisive operation through effects on the enemy, other actors, and the terrain are called what?
• Which of the following is a movement technique?
• What is information about the friendly situation?
• When does engagement / disengagement criteria become a factor?
• Which form provides early warning to the protected force but has the least protection?
• Where can FFIR be found in an operational order?
• The movement of patients under medical supervision to and between medical treatment facilities by air transportation is called?
• Which is a core competency of a movement to contact or an attack?
• Which control measure is used for reconnaissance handover between units?
• Which easily identified feature in the operational area is used for control and coordination of military operations?
• What term describes the line that delineates surface areas for coordination and deconfliction between adjacent units?
• The Five Steps of Reverse Planning are abbreviated as GLALS. Which option lists these steps in the correct order?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five domains of the operational framework?
• ASB stands for?
• Which form of Recon is used when the enemy situation is vague or information on the operational environment is limited, is time intensive, and has restrictive boundaries?
• What type of security is Division or Higher?
• Which form of security provides early warning, protection from observation and direct fires, and is more robust with increased firepower, typically at squadron size or higher?
• Who are the grey eagles taskorg'd under?
• Which core competency is described as enabling command and control over extended ranges and complex terrain?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the seven core competencies of Army Aviation?
• When does the Air Assault Planning Process begin?
• PIRs are questions about which topics?
• Which term is defined as a location that may be staffed or unstaffed where casualties are assembled for evacuation to a medical treatment facility?
• Where is a patient transferred from one ambulance to another en route to a medical treatment facility?
• Which form of security is described as mission is done independently from the main body and provides Brigade-level, the most protection?
• Which form of security is described as providing early warning, protection from observation, and protection from direct fires, with increased firepower, suitable for squadron-sized elements or higher?
• What is the role of a reconnaissance handover line?
• Which term describes operations that enable the decisive operation by generating and maintaining combat power?
• In aviation handbook naming conventions, ACP stands for which term?
• Which term describes an area broader than the operational area into which a commander can directly influence through maneuver, fire support, and information?
• Which type of reconnaissance uses two or more like assets and collects against the same intelligence requirement to provide depth if one element is compromised?
• An offensive operation is designed to develop the situation and to establish or regain contact. Which operation matches this description?
• What is the acronym for the seven fundamentals of recon?
• CATS describes which characteristics of the offense?
• Which term describes the type of operation that sets conditions for the success of the decisive operation through effects on the enemy, other actors, and the terrain?
• Movement to Contact is used when:
• Step 3 of the Engagement Area Development Process is to:
• What term describes the combined arms employment of joint and Army capabilities to create and exploit relative advantages that achieve objectives, defeat enemy forces, and consolidate gains?
• Which control measure is a defensive position oriented on a likely enemy avenue of approach, containing multiple firing positions arrayed around it and is restrictive in nature?
• Which term describes a defensive asset that provides early warning, protection from observation and direct fires, and can operate independently from the main body?
• In aviation handbook naming conventions, which control measure uses the Letters naming convention?
• Which of the following is an attack employment method that uses a phased approach?
• What does Generic OP refer to in reconnaissance terminology?
• Which form of reconnaissance is designed to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance?
• Tempo subcomponents are Level of Aggressiveness and Level of Detail. Which option is a subcomponent of Tempo?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed core competency of Army Aviation?
• Which statement about the relationship of security and enabling operations is true?
• In aviation contexts, which form of security encompasses route security, convoy security, and aerial security?
• Step 1 of the Engagement Area Development Process is to perform what task?
• Which of the following is NOT a Fire Distribution Technique?
• What is the primary purpose of security?
• Who conducts the Designation Board at the discretion of the battalion/squadron commander?
• A large number of casualties produced in a relatively short period that exceeds local logistic support is termed?
• What is the primary purpose of MEDEVAC transports?
• Which form of reconnaissance is typically associated with operations in hostile, denied, or diplomatically sensitive environments?
• What cognitive tool helps commanders visualize and describe the application of combat power in time, space, purpose, and resources in the concept of operations?
• What kind of operation is security?
• Which of the following is NOT a NORMA consideration when selecting a SBF/ABF/BP?
• What is an air corridor?
• Who has mission authority over grey eagles?
• Which term refers to the removal of a patient by various transport means from a theater of operation to prevent further illness or injury, or to provide disposition?
• Which control measure uses the Numbers naming convention and designates the place where units will pass through?
• What term refers to a predetermined point on the ground that facilitates navigation, control of speed, and enroute fires?
• What does Named Areas of Interest (NAI) stand for?
• Reconnaissance in Force is used to gather information about enemy Strength, Disposition, and Reactions.
• ACED is an acronym used to denote four operational tenets. Which four terms does ACED stand for?
• Movement of ground forces by rotary wing aircraft to destroy an enemy or seize terrain is called:
• An offensive operation that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes, and secures terrain, or both is called what?
• PIRs are associated with Named Areas of Interest (NAIs).
• The Reserve is defined as which of the following?
• What term describes a body of troops withheld from action at the start to be prepared for a decisive movement?
• What is the first step in planning an attack?
• In reverse planning, which statement best describes the Ground Tactical Plan?
• Which statement best describes Movement to Contact?
• Which of the following is NOT a domain of the five-domain operational framework?
• What is an indicator?
• Which battalion is tasked to support in areas such as ground vehicle and aviation maintenance, Signal and Network Support, Aviation and ground sustainment operations for the aviation brigade and distribution management operations within the aviation brigade?
• Step 2 of the Engagement Area Development Process is to:
• Which form of reconnaissance does aviation NOT perform?
• Which control measure is an easily identifiable point on the terrain where two or more units are required to make contact?
• What are the elements of Commander's Guidance?
• Which security concept is a priority of work but is NOT a form of security?
• What are the two measures of local security?
• What term describes the area of concern to the commander including the area of influence, adjacent areas, and extending into enemy territory?
• In the Engagement Area Development Process, which step directly precedes Direct Fire Planning?
• What is the purpose of a contact point?
• What is the act of moving a sick, injured, wounded, or other person to obtain medical treatment called?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a form of Recon?
• Which of the following is a defensive option among the five options after contact?
• Which line is designated for the transition of responsibility from one unit to another?
• What type of air movement facilitates a tactical mission and has a higher potential threat from enemy forces?
• Disengagement Criteria specifies conditions in which the unit will stop engaging in their actions to prevent decisive engagement.
• Which symbol is used to denote a reconnaissance Observation Post on maps?
• How many HH-60 helicopters are in a Combat Aviation Brigade (CAB)?
• Which control measure is defined as the area where the commander intends to contain and destroy an enemy force with massed effects?
• The reconnaissance handover line is associated with which elements to ensure positive control of enemy contact between observers?
• Which statement accurately describes the function of a screen?
• What term describes the area inclusive of and extending beyond an operational area that encompasses the commander’s area of concern for planning and intelligence activities?
• Which of the following is NOT a BRASSCRAFO element?
• Which location may or may not be staffed, where casualties are assembled for evacuation to a medical treatment facility?
• Which of the following is an element of Commander's Guidance?
• What is an EEFI?
• Which form of security offers the most protection and is typically used at brigade level or higher, potentially operating independently from the main body?
• For Urgent and Urgent Surgical MEDEVAC missions, MEDEVAC company commanders 'may' be delegated approval at what risk level?
• How many categories does the Department of Defense group unmanned aerial systems into?
• Which security type is typically used at the battalion level to provide screening?
• What term refers to the validation of a medical mission and approval of use of MEDEVAC aircraft by a medical officer?
• What are the two types of AMCs?
• A contact point is used in conjunction with which point?
• Which factor is NOT listed as a consideration when selecting a Helicopter Landing Zone?
• In reverse planning, which step is considered the most important?
• Which set of words correctly completes the acronym CATS as used for offensive characteristics?
• What is the purpose of Conduct Rehearsal in the attack planning sequence?
• Reconnaissance in Force is primarily used to answer a PIR.
• Who provides medical mission approval for MEDEVAC operations?
• Which of the following is a fundamental of security?
• Which step follows Conduct Reconnaissance in the planning sequence?
• Which statement correctly matches the security type to its level?
• Which recon concept describes the ability to direct follow-on collection by another system?
• What is the difference between a screen and a cover?
• Which step is the last in the attack planning process?
• Movement to Contact is primarily focused on gaining contact with the enemy.
• Which form of security protects routes, installations, and actions within a defined area, including aviation tasks such as route security and convoy security?
• An indicator is defined as:
• Which symbol or term is commonly used to indicate a reconnaissance OP on a map?
• Which option is not a recon management type?
• How long is long duration security?
• Air transport of units, personnel, supplies, and equipment is called:
• Which security type provides protection at the brigade or higher level?
• What is the purpose of reconnaissance?
• What is the term for the portion of troops withheld from action at the beginning to be available for a decisive movement?
• How is a Reconnaissance in Force different from a Movement to Contact?
• Special Recon employs military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces.
• Which of the following is NOT a UAS mission set?
• How is security different from reconnaissance?
• What is the name of the last phase of the Pilot in Command Program?
• Which statement best describes the objective of security?
• In the risk-based launch approval scheme, what is the correct ascending order of risk levels?
• Which type of reconnaissance is used when there is a relatively thorough understanding of the operational environment?
• Which of the following is NOT a fundamental of recon?
• How long is short duration security?
• Which term describes a security priority of work that is not a form of security?
• What is the term for the geographical area in which information will be collected to satisfy a PIR?
• Which acronym represents the three dimensions of the operational framework?
• Can AVN independently conduct a Guard?
• Which movement-to-contact type involves establishing a perimeter around an area to locate and isolate the enemy?
• The acronym PIR stands for which term?
• What are the three types of recon management?
• Which acronym is used when selecting a firing position?
• Who has admin control over the grey eagles?
• Who is responsible for coordinating and managing the Air Mission Coordination Meeting and the Air Mission Brief?
• What type of security is brigade or higher?
• A target whose loss to the enemy will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly COA is called a:
• Which of the following is NOT an attack employment method?
• Which of the following is one of the UAS mission sets?
• Which term describes the timely and effective movement of wounded or ill to and between medical treatment facilities on dedicated medical platforms with en-route care provided by medical personnel?
• Which control measure uses the Jewels naming convention to designate a restricted air route?
• Which step comes immediately after receiving the mission in the attack planning sequence?
• What is the primary purpose of security in military operations?
• Which type of offensive operation does AVN conduct?
• What UAS role is similar to a Pilot-in-Command?
• Which statement best describes a Phase Line?
• Who staffs MEDEVAC transports to provide care en route?
• Which operation directly accomplishes the mission and commander's intent?
• Which recon type provides depth should one element become compromised?
• Which of the following is a type of assigned area used by a land component or ARFOR commander?
• What is the primary purpose of the Air Control Point (ACP)?
• Launch approval for MEDEVAC aircraft requires appropriate Aviation Command level approval based on risk level, which includes levels such as Low-Company and Ex-High-First GO.
• For urgent MEDEVAC missions, the company commander may be delegated which level of risk approval authority?
• Which of the following is a type of offensive operation?
• Which form of contact listed among the nine forms relates to chemical, biological, radiological, or nuclear threats?
• Which form of Recon is used when looking for specific information, trying to understand the enemy situation, and is permissive?
• Which term describes the position from which military observations are made and may fire direct fires?
• Which statement correctly describes the roles of the Air Assault Task Force Commander and the Aviation Task Force Commander?
• Which sequence correctly lists the steps of the Engagement Area Development Process in order?
• Which form of reconnaissance is used to obtain detailed information about enemy strength, disposition, and reactions and focuses on answering a PIR?
• What term refers to the location where a casualty receives initial injury?
• What form of Recon is used when detailed information about a specific route and surrounding terrain is required?
• How many lines of a 9-line MEDEVAC call are required before air assets can launch?
• Aeromedical evacuation in the Army is conducted in accordance with which DoD directive?
• An Observation Post (OP) is best described as a position from which military observations are made, and from which fires may be directed.
• What are the first two meetings between the ground force and the supporting aviation unit?